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Is Habermas's line between input to understanding and understanding drawn by stipulation?

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An open question the Institute puts to the texts. Raised in stage 03 Relationship.

Q: The surviving question, carried from Gadamer's chapter 4 (negation presupposes the question, p. 369) into Habermas (T&J pp. 12, 154 against p. 78; TCA 2:35). If "understanding" is defined as discursive uptake, the thesis that understanding is linguistic is true by stipulation, and the burden returns to him to say why performative registration that revises expectations is not already a form of understanding. This question can be lost.

Passages: Gadamer, Truth and Method, p. 369 · Habermas, Truth and Justification, pp. 12, 78, 154, and TCA II, p. 35

See this question on the map

Answers that argue from the texts, with pages, are what this board is for. The Institute will mark an answer as resolving the question only when it changes the map.


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